Public Administration - 1997 (Preliminary Examination)
Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 300
1.Which one of the following statements is incorrect in
respect of Simon’s decisions making theory?
(a) Deciding is as Important as doing
(b) Decisions
are, in the final analysis, composite
(c) Administrative man
maximizes
(d) There is always a means-ends relationship
2. Which of the
following statements regarding decision-making are attributable to Simon?
1.
Divorce of ends from means is false.
2. Means also entail value assumptions.
3. Traditional ends-means approach is not logical.
4. Behavior
alternative model is superior.
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
(a) 1 and
2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2
and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
3. 'Decision-making necessitates the location and control of
strategic factors,' this view is
expressed by:
(a) Fayol
(b) Barnard (c)
Likert (d) Simon
4. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion
(A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Though the
decision making process is an important variable in the organization situation,
it alone is not adequate to explain the totality of the organization picture.
Reason (R): Decision-making is a process involving emotional,
expressive, rational and instrumental dimensions. In the context of the above
two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is
false
(d) A is false but R is true
5. The concept of satisfying behavior comes close to the
economic concept of :
(a) Maximizing
output (b) Optimum output
(c) Best
output. (d)
Easily achievable output
6. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List
I
List II
A. Laissez-faire
-Leader
1. Deserter
B. Country-Club-Leader
2. Compromise
C. Task Management
Leader
3. Missionary
D. Team Management
Leader
4. Executive
5. Autocrat
A
B C
D
A B C D
(a) 1
2 3 4
(b) 1 3
5 4
(c) 3
1 5 2
(d) 2 1
4 3
7. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List
I
List II
A. Trait
theory
1. Exchange process between leaders and followers
B. Sociometric
theory 2. Personality characteristic
of a leader
C. Group
theory
3. Environmental factors
D. Contingency theory
4. Goals and structure of an organization
5. Facts and values
A
B C
D
A B C D
(a) 1
2 3 4
(b) 2 4
1 3
(c) 3
4 5 1
(d) 3 2
5 4
8. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion
(A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Leadership
comes from a complex relationship between the leader and the led conflicts that
arise between the organization and its environment. In the context of the above
two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is
false
(d)
A is false but R is true
9. Which one of the following theories views leadership as a
manipulative function?
(a) Human
Relations Theory (b)
Scientific Management Theory
(c) Classical
Theory
(d) Decision Making Theory
10. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion
(A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) :
The function of communication is not just to get something off the mind of the
transmitter.
Reason (R) : Communication must create the desired
impact at the receiving end.
In the context of the above two statements,
which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R
is true
11. Given below are two
statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason
(R) :
Assertion (A) : Classical theorists did not take
cognizance of the needs of individuals.
Reason (R) : Need theorists
believe that workers are motivated by their own intrinsic needs.
In the
context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is
true
12. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List
I
List II
A. ERG
theory
1. A.H. Maslow
B.
Acquired-Needs 2. Clayton
Alderfer
Theory .
C. Hierarchy of
Needs 3. David C. McClelland
Theory
D. Equity
Theory
4. J. S. Adams
A B C
D A B
C D
(a) 2
3 1
4 (b) 2 1
3 4
(c) 4
3 1 2 (d)
4 1 3 2
13. Consider the following statements about Civil Service in a
developing society:
1. It should act as an agent of change.
2. It
should have concern for social equity.
3. It should have concern for
vested interests.
4. It should be politically neutral.
Which
of the above are correct ?
Choose the correct answer from the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and
2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
14. Which one of the following shows the correct sequence of
the four basic steps in the Position Classification Plan ?
(a) Job analysis, Grouping of Positions, Standardization,
Position allocation
(b) Standardization, Job analysis, Grouping of
Positions, Position allocation
(c) Grouping of Position, Job analysis,
Position allocation, Standardization
(d) Position allocation,
Standardization, Job analysis, Grouping of Positions
15. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion
{A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Rank
classification facilitates literal entry.
Reason (R) : Rank
classification facilitates transfers within the service.
In the context of
the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is
false
(d) A is false but R is true
16." The most illustrious
English jurists have been men who have never opened a law book till after the
close of a distinguished academic career…" This statement was made in favor of
(a) a test of scholastic abilities for
entry into civil services
(b) training civil servants for functional
specialization
(c) a test after training of civil servants
(d) a period
of probation for civil servants
17. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion
(A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Recruitment
has been regarded as the most important function of personnel
administration.
Reason (R) : All other aspect of personnel
administration are dependent upon right recruitment. In the context of the above
two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is
false
(d) A is
false but R is true
18. Which of the following regarding training in civil service
are true?
1. It should be of a continuous nature.
2. It
should be for upgrading the skills.
3. It should be for updating
the knowledge.
4. It should be delinked from promotion.
Select
the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 2 and
3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
19. Which of the following can be used to ensure objectivity in
assessing the suitability of candidates for promotion?
1. Prescribing such criteria
as qualifications and experience.
2. Laying down qualities to be assessed
3. Requiring reasons to be recorded for denial of promotion.
4.
Requiring adverse reports to be given to the employee concerned.
5.
Constituting multimember boards for the purpose.
Select the correct answer
from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 4
and 5 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (d)
2, 3, 4 and 5
20. According to Lopez, which of the following are the primary
purposes of performance evaluation?
1.
Information 2. Control 3.
Review. 4. Motivation 5. Development
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and
3
(b) 2,3 and 4
(c) 1, 4 and
5
(d) 3, 4 and 5
21. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion
(A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Staff
councils are the best device to resolve the disputes between the government and
public employee.
Reason (R) : Cordial relations between the employer
and employees are indispensable for optimum productivity of an
organization.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of
the following is correct ?
(a) Both A
and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are
true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is
false
(d) A is false
but R is true
22. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion
(A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Public
employees, like others, should have the right to demonstrate in order to arouse
public conscience about their grievances.
Reason (R) : The government
as a model employer is required to provide fair conditions of service.
In
the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is
false
(d) A is
false but R is true
23. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion
(A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The
principle of 'fair comparison' for determination of salaries in the civil
service, is NOT acceptable.
Reason (R) : Public Administration has no
profit motive.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the
following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R
are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but
R is not tile correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is
false
(d) A is false but R is true
24. Which of the following are major considerations in salary
structuring for civil service?
1. Ability to pay 2.
productivity 3.
Adequacy 4. Rationality
Select the
correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and
2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and
4 (d) 2,
3 and 4
25. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion
(A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) :
Restrictions on political activities of public employees are in their own
interests. Reason (R) : Neutrality of civil servants ensures that all of
them are treated alike.
In the context of the above two statements, which
one of the following is correct?
(a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R
are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is
false
(d) A is false
but R is true
26. Which of the following are included in the principles of
anonymity of civil service?
1. Non-accountability of the civil service to
the legislature
2. Civil servants becoming professional experts
3.Application of the doctrine of ministerial responsibility
4.
Explaining by civil servants what their departments are doing
Choose the
correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and
2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1,2
and 3. (d) 2, 3 and 4
27. Which one of the following is a common objective of the
'Rule of Lapse', 'Sunset Legislation' and 'Zero-Based Budgeting'?
(a) Economy in
expenditure
(b) Legislative
control
(c) Review and reauthorization of expenditures
(d) Ensuring
achievement of physical targets
28. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List
I
List II
A. The
Speaker
1.Fixes the time limit for discussion of Demands
B. The Finance
Minister 2. Examines the financial operation of the
executive
C. The
President
3. Makes mention in the Parliament about the annual
financial
statement
D. The C &
AG
4. Participates in the formulation of Five Year Plan
A B
C D
A B C D
(a) 1
4 3 2 (b)
4 1 2 3
(c) 1 4 2
3 (c) 4 1
3 2
29. Given below are two statements, one labeled as R. Assertion
(A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) :
Re-appropriation is an executive act.
Reason (R) : Re-appropriation
is permissible to meet the expenditure in a new service.
In the context of
the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation
(b) Both A and R
are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is
false
(d) A is false but R is true
30. In the context of the budget, the term guillotine is used
with reference to
(a) Appropriation bill
(b) Consolidated fund charges
(c) Voting of Demands
(d) Finance Bill
31. Which of the following
form part of the budget in India?
1. Estimated income and expenditure
for the following year
2. Revised figures for the preceding
year
3. Revised estimates for the current year
4. Actual
figures for the previous year
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
(a) 1 and
2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and
3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
32. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion
(A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The
Ministry of Finance is no longer the central agency to exercise control over
finances.
Reason (R) : Administrative ministries demand greater
delegation of financial powers from the Finance Ministry for speedy
implementation of development programmes.
In the context of the above
two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the Correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(a) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false
but R is true
33. Match List I with List II and select the correct
answer:
List
I
List II
A. Voting on
the 1. Prior
consent of the demands for grants President
B.
Budget
2. Not subject to vote of Parliament
C. Money
Bill
3. Al instrument of socioeconomic change
D. Charged Expenditure 4.
Enactment of
Budget
5. Public Accounts Committee
A B C
D A
B C D
(a) 4
3 1 2
(b) 3 4
2 5
(c)
1 3
4 2 (d)
1 4
3 2
34. In the h1dian budgetary system, pending the passage of
Finance Bill in the Parliament, the provisional collection under Tax Act, 1931
empowers the government to collect taxes for a period of
(a) 50 days (b) 60
days (c) 75
days (d) 90 days
35. Which of the following are included in Budgetary Control by
executive?
1. Allotment
2. Apportionment
3.
Audit
4. Sanctions
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
(a) 1, 2,3 and
4 (b) 1,2 and 4
(c) 1 and
2
(d) 3 and 4
36. Which one of the following is NOT the occasion for
criticizing the administration in the Lok Sabha?
(a) General discussion on the budget
(b) Voting
on demands for grants
(c) Motion of tanks to the President
(d) Discussion on the finance Bill
37. Which one of the following is NOT a function of the
Committee on Subordinate Legislation? (a) To
evolve a systematic pattern of the terms of delegation ,
(b) To improve
the methods of publicity of the rules
(c) To lay down rules and
regulations on the table of the House
(d) To achieve uniformity in
rule-making procedures
38. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A)
and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The
Legislature exerts authority over administration through the appropriation
process.
Reason (R) : The gross amount of the appropriation determines
the volume of official activity and an itemized appropriation act may leave
little or no administrative discretion.
In the context of the above two
statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explaT1ation of A
(b) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false
but R is true
39. Which of the following are tools of executive control over
administration?
1.
Budget
2. Civil Service Code
3. Audit by C & AG
4. Rule-making power
Choose the correct answer from the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and
2 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and
4 (d) 3 and 4
40. The most important device of supplying power to the
judiciary to invalidate a Statute in India is provided by:
(a) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(b)
The Fundamental Rights
(c) Articles 350 and 351
(d)
Prerogative Writs
41. Under which of the following circumstances judicial
intervention in administration is justified? 1. When there is abuse of
discretion
2. When there is honest difference of opinion
3.
When there is error of law
4. When there is lack of
jurisdiction
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and
3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and
4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
42. The specific purpose of the proposed institution of Lok Pal
is to
(a) strengthen legislative
control over administration
(b) supplement Judicial Control over
administration
(c) protect and promote insufficient
administration
(d) enable effective popular control over administration
43. Which of the following are emphasized by Riggs to compare
administrative systems?
1. Model building
2. Cultural
Dimension
3. Ecological perspective
4. Structure-functional
approach
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and
3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and
4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
44. In which one of the following countries is control over the
administration through questions and motions to 'no confidence' NOT possible
?
(a)
Pakistan (b) Britain
(c)
USA (d) France
45. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion
(A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) :
Comparative Public Administration is an attempt to study administrative systems
in their ecological settings.
Reason (R) : Socio-economic
context has a bearing on administration.
In the context of the above
two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false
but R is true
46. The major conceptual achievement of the Civil Service Reform
Act of 1978 in the USA is the vindication of the
(a) inadequate validity of the merit
principle
(b) separation of managerial, political and legal aspects of
personnel administration
(c) defect of bipartisan nature of the
erstwhile C. S. Commission
(d) merits of the theory of checks and
balances
47. Match List I with List II and select the correct
answer:
List
I
List II
A. Northgate Trevelyan
Report
1. Organization of permanent civil service
B. The Pendleton
Act
2. Training of Police Personnel
C. Hoover Commission
Report
3. Civil Service Examination reform
D. Satish Chandra Committee
Report 4. Political activities of civil
servants
5. Introducting Merit System:
A B C
D A
B C D
(a) 5
4 2 3 (b)
2 3
4 1
(c) 1
5 4 3 (d)
1 5
3 2
48. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A)
and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The Soviet
bureaucracy had a subordinate relationship with the Communist
Party.
Reason (R) : The functions of the Soviet Government used to be
controlled and directed by the Communist Party.
In the context of the
above two statements, which one of the following is
correct?
(a) Both A and R are true
and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R
is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is
false
(d) A is false but R is true
49. Which one of the following statements is
correct?
(a) What the Treasury does
in U.K. is done.
(b) What the Treasury does in U.K. is shared by three
agencies in U.S.A.- The Treasury, the
Office of Personnel Management and the
Merit Systems protection Board.
(c) What the Treasury does in U.K. is
done by the U.S. Treasury.
(d) There are Civil Service Commissions in
both the U.K. and the U.S.A
50. Which of the following are distinct features of the British
Civil Service as compared with the French Civil Service?
1. Dominance
of generalist administrators.
2. Anonymity of central government
officers.
3. Restriction on political rights of civil
servants.
4. Appointment of the members of the British Administrative
class as Chief Executive officers of Local Authorities.
Choose the
correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and
3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1,
3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and
4
51. The term 'Shadow
Cabinet' in Britain refers to
(a)
the Cabinet that is still in the process of formation
(b) the Cabinet
Committee that functions under the guidance of the Cabinet
(c) a group
of opposition party members with assigned roles
(d) the team of
intellectuals advising the Cabinet
52. In which one of the following countries can a citizen / get
speedy justice against the wrongful acts of officials?
(a)
India (b)
France (c) USA (d) England
53. Which of the following statements are true of Public
Administration in France?
1. The Prefect is now stripped off of much of
his executive power and is rechristened 'Commissioner of the Republic'
2. The
Prefect is now given more political and financial powers under a scheme of
devolution of powers to communes.
3. The regional prefects' main role
is to coordinate economic planning.
4. The Mayors of local communes are
independent of the state officials.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) 1 and
2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and
3 (d) 2 and 4
54. Which of the
following factors contributed to the movement for comparative studies in public
administration?
1. the attainment of independence by a large number of
former colonial societies.
2. The need to extend the scope of public
administration as a discipline.
3. The emphasis by the United Nations
as greater interaction among its members.
4. The involvement of a large
number of scholars and practitioners of administration in the post-war
reconstruction programmes.
Choose the correct answer from the codes
given below:
(a) 1 and
2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and
4
(d) 3 and 4
55. Which one of the following influenced the shaping of
British administration in India ?
(a) Fabianism (b)
Utilitarianism (c)
Pluralism (d) Mercantilism
56. The Central Board of Revenue has been set up
by
(a) the
Constitution
(b) the order of the Finance Minister
(c) a Law
of Parliament
(d) a Presidential order
57. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of
Indian administration?
(a)
Uniformity
(b) Decentralization
(c) Diarchy
(d)
Independent Judiciary
58. The expression 'Prime Ministerial form of government'
indicates a form of government in which (a)
the Prime Minister is directly elected by the people
(b) the Prime Minister
heads a coalition
(c) the Prime Minister is the Head of the State
(d)
the Prime Minister is no longer the first among equals but is dominant
59. Which of the following functions are performed by the
Central Secretariat?
1. Issuing proclamations of Emergency.
2.
Policymaking and its modification.
3. Work concerning legislation.
4.
Exercising financial controls.
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
(a) 1 and
4 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and
3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
60. The Staff Selection Commission is
(a) an 'attached office' under the Ministry of Personnel
(b) a 'subordinate office' of the UPSC
(c) an autonomous body
under the Ministry of Personnel
(d) a statutory body under the UPSC
61. Which of the following statement regarding the Planning
Commission is NOT true?
1. It is a body consisting of only
specialists.
2. It has been regarded as a Super Cabinet.
3. It
consists of both generalists and specialist.
4. It consists of
nominees of the National Development Council.
Select the correct answer
using the codes given below:
(a) 1
and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and
4 (d) 1 and 4
62. One of the functions of the Planning Commission is
to
(a) accordance among the
states
(b) recommend Plan Grants for public purpose
(c)
supervise the implementation of deregulation
(d) recommend
grants-in-aid of revenue
63. Which one of the following statements is NOT
correct?
(a) The Planning
Commission prepares the plans in consultation with Union Ministries and State
Governments
(b) The various central ministries and state governments
draw up their own plans according to their needs irrespective of the allocations
of funds
(c) An effort is made through negotiations and discussions to
arrive at an agreement among the central ministries and state governments on
priorities for planned development.
(d) The Draft of the Ave Year Plan
prepared by the Planning Commission is placed before the National Development
Council for its approval.
64. Which of the following are NOT subject to the detailed
audit of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
1. All
Cooperative Societies.
2. All Public Corporations.
3. All
civil expenditure.
4. All defence expenditure.
Select the correct
answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b)
2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and
4
65. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India submits three
reports to the Parliament/State Legislatures. Which one of the following reports
does NOT come under that category?
(a) Audit Report on Finance Accounts
(b) Audit
Report on Appropriation Accounts
(b) Audit Report on Capital
Accounts
(d) Audit Report on Commercial and Public Sector Enterprises.
66. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion
(A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Proper
maintenance of accounts of the public funds and their audit by an agency
independent of the executive control are essential for an efficient
administration of public finances. Reason (R) : The spending authorities
should produce receipts or vouchers concerning every paisa which they
spend.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the
following is correct?
(a) Both A
and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R
are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R
is false
(d) A is false but R is true
67. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of a
government company?
(a) It has an
audit board of its own
(b) It is a body corporate
(c) It is
owned by the state
(d) Its employees are not civil servants.
68. Match List I with List II and select the correct
answer:
List
I
List II
A. Organized as a major
sub-division 1. Public
Corporation
of a department of government
B. Represents a combination
of
2. Control Board
government ownership and business
management
C. The Articles of Association
are
3. Departmental Undertaking
drawn up by the government
and
can be revised by it
D. Devised for
multi-purpose
project 4.
Government Company
A B C
D A
B C D
(a) 4 1
3 2 (b)
3 1
4 2
(c) 3
2 4 1 (d)
4 2
3 1
69. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A)
and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A): There is a
feeling that the institution of All India Services needs reconsideration.
Reason (R): Members of the. All India Services foster national
integration, as they are recruited from different parts of the
country.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the
following is correct?
(a) Both A
and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A .
(b) Both A and R
are true but R is not ti1e correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R
is false
(d) A is false but R is true
70. Which of the following are the features of All India
Services?
1. They are common to both Central and State
Governments.
2. They are common to all offices of the Government of
India throughout the country.
3. The concept of All India Service is
based on Tenure System.
4. The members of All India Services are
representatives 'of the Central Government.
Choose the correct answer
from the codes given below:
(a) 1
and 2 (b) 2 and 3
correct
(c) 3 and
4 (d) 1 and 3
71. Match List I with List II and select the correct
answer:
List
I
List II
(Organisation)
(Function)
A. Ministry of Home Affairs 1.
Management of IAS
B.
U.P.S.C.
2. Recruitment to Class III (Non-Technical) Posts
C. Ministry of
Personnel 3. Cadre
controlling of I.P .S.
D. Staff Selection commission 4.
Recruitment to Class II
posts
5. Advising on inter-service promotions
A B C
D
A B C
D
(a)
3 5
2 1 (b)
3 5
1 2
(c) 1
3 5
4 (d) 5
2 3 1
72. Which of the following statements are NOT
correct?
1. A Member of UPSC holds office for a term of six years or
until he attains the age of 65 years 2. A Member of UPSC is eligible for
reappointment for the same post for a second term.
3. A Member of UPSC
can accept employment under Central State government after retirement. 4. A
Member of UPSC can accept employment as a member of state P.S.C. after
retirement. Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) l and
2
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 1,.2 and
3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
73. Which of the
following ensure functional autonomy of the UPSC?
1. the Chairman and
Members can be removed only on the grounds given in the
Constitution.
2. The expenditure of the Commission is a charge on the
Consolidated Fund of India.
3. The Members and Chairman are allowed to
accept jobs after retirement.
4. The Chairman and Members being civil
servants function in a neutral manner.
Select the correct using the
codes given below:
(a) 1 and
2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and
4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
74. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion
(A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A): For IAS
probationers, "sandwich " training method is employed.
Reason (R)
: Field training is useful for providing an insight into the actual
administrative situation. In the context of the above two statements,
which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false
but R is true
75. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A)
and the other labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A) : A
generalist may be defined as a public servant who does not have a special
background and is easily transferable to any department.
Reason
(R): A generalist by virtue of his general knowledge is capable of working
in any department.
In the context of the above two statements,
which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are hue and R is the correct explanation
of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of
A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
76. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A)
and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Civil
servants are influenced in their work by political executives because they know
the latter have support in the Cabinet.
Reason (R) : Civil
servants put up only proposals as are likely to be approved by the Ministers. In
the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is
correct?
(a) Both A and R are hue
and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R
is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is
false
(d) A is false but R is true
77. Which of the following are the functions of the Chief
Minister?
1. To communicate to the Central Government an the decisions
of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the
State.
2. To instruct District Connectors to carry out and the
decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the
State.
3. To communicate to the Governor an decisions of the Council of
Ministers relating to the administration of the State.
4. To
communicate to the Governor an decisions of the Council of Ministers regarding
proposals for legislation.
Select the correct using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and
2 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and
3 (d) 3 and 4
78. Which one among the following is NOT the function of the
State Secretariat?
(a) To assist
the Minister in the formulation of policy
(b) To act as a channel of
communication between one Government and an other
(c) To prepare
drafts of legislation to be introduced in the Assembly
(d) To assist
the legislature in its secretarial work
79. Which of the following are the positions enjoined upon the
Chief Secretary of a State?
1. Secretary to the Cabinet.
2.
Chief Advisor to the Chief Minister.
3. Chief of the
Secretaries.
4. Head of the Civil Service:
5. Representative
of the State in all legal matters.
Choose the correct answer from the
codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and
3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and
4 (d) 2,
3, 4 and 5
80. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The
territorial jurisdictions of the regional end district offices are
coterminous
2. The territorial jurisdictions of regional offices of different
departments are not coterminous.
3. The territorial jurisdiction of regional
offices of the central and state governments are one and the same.
4. The
territorial jurisdictions of the regional and district offices are different.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and
3
(c) 2 and
4 (d) 3 and 4
81. In which one of the following districts has the 'Files to
Field' programme been introduced?
(a)
Sirmour (H.P.)
(b) Ahmedabad (Gujarat)
(c) Ahmednagar
(Maharashtra)
(d) Sambalpur (Orissa)
82. Which one of the following is NOT a function of Deputy
Commissioner/District Collector?
(a)
Maintenance of law and order
(b) Survey and Settlement
(c) Trial of
cases under IPC
(d) Enforcing provisions of Cr. P.C.
83. Which of the following are provided for in the 73rd
Constitutional Amendment?
1. Elections through Chief Election
Commissioner.
2. Devolution of functions by State government.
3. Creation
of State Finance Commission.
4. Setting up a three-tiered Indian Federation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3
and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
84. Which of the following are true regarding the I.RD.P?
1. It is Uni.-dimensional in nature.
2. It adopts a holistic approach.
3. It calls for a high level of coordination.
4. It is mainly a
poverty alleviation programme.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below :
(a) 1,2 and
3 (b) 1,3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and
4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
85. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion
(A) and the other labeled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) :
Multiplicity of authorities in urban areas has added to the problems of
citizens.
Reason (R) : New special purpose agencies have been created
for urban functions.
In the context of the above two statements, which one
of the following is correct?
(a) Both A
and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are
true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
86. Which of the following cause the creation of slums in large
urban centers?
1. Increased economic activity in urban areas
2. Per
capita income being higher in metro cities.
3. Increased government
regulations for urban development.
4. Out migration from small urban
centres.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and
3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and
4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
87. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion
(A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : State
government are obliged to appoint a State Finance Commission under the
Constitution. .
Reason (R) : The quantum of money to be paid annually
by the state governments to the local bodies is determined by the State Finance
Commission.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the
following is correct?
(a) Both A
and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation
of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
88. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion
(A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The
Directorates of Local Bodies in States . supervise the working of Municipal
Corporations.
Reason (R) : The State governments need to exercise
control over all the local bodies.
In the context of the above two
statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R. is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is
true
89. Which of the following are provided for by the
74th Constitutional Amendment in respect of Municipal
Corporations?
1. Seats to be filled by direct elections on the basis of
wards.
2. Reservation of seats for SC/ST.
3. Reservation of seats for
backward classes.
4. One-third reservation of seats for women.
Choose
the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1,
2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
90..Gerald Caiden
has mentioned that the crucial role as assumed by public administration in
contemporary society is
(a)
Institutionalization of Socio-economic change
(b) Strengthening of roots of
democracy
(c) Demoralizing administration
(d) Strengthening of
human relations in administration
91. From the
Value-Fad stand point, various approaches to the study of Public Administration
may be classified as
(a) empirical
and normative approach
(b) philosophical and historical
approaches
(c) legal and behavioral approaches
(d) structural
and ecological approaches
92. Administration
is politics since it must be responsive to the public interest." This statement
was made by
(a) L.
Urwick
(b) John M. Piffner
(c) Paul H.
Appleby (d) L. Gulick
93. Which of the
following statements regarding "New Public Administration " are
true?
1. It rejects that public administration which is
value-free.
2. It rejects politics-administration
dichotomy.
3. It rejects that public administration which is not
properly involved in policy.
4. It is more or less bureaucratic and
hierarchical.
Which of the above are true?
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and
2 (b) 2 and
3
(c) 3 and
4 (d) 1 and 4
94. In which of the following directions does public
administration move at present?
1. Multi-foci in study.
2.
Mini-paradigms.
3. New Public Administration.
4. Locus and
focus approach.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and
2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and
3 (d) 4 only
95. Consider the
following statements about the post-World War" writing in Public
Administration?
1. These seek to undertake cross-cultural
studies.
2. These seek to evolve a true science of administration based
on interdisciplinary approach.
3. These seek to develop appropriate
methodology.
4. These seek to analyze all types of social
phenomena.
Which of the above are true?
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b)
2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and
4
96. In the evolution
of Public Administration there has been a shift in emphasis during successive
periods. In this context which of the following pairs are correctly
matched?
1. 1887-1926............. Crisis of Identity
2. 1910-1920............. Scientific Management
3.
1920-1947.............. Human Relations
4.
1948-1966.............. Behaviorism
Choose the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) 2, 3 and
4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c)
1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
97. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly
matched?
(a) Public
Administration ---Collective activity organisation and management of men
and material (b) Development Administration ---Change and Administrative
Responsiveness, Rationality, Management-Worker relations .
(c) Comparative
Public Administration--- From ideograph to nomothetic
(d) New Public
Administration--- Relevance, values, social equity, change
98. Given below are
two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R)
:
Assertion (A) : The principal objective of scientific
management is to secure maximum prosperity for the employer, coupled with
maximum prosperity for employees.
Reason (R) : The philosophy of
Scientific Management is that there is no inherent conflict in the interests of
the employer , workers and consumers.
In the context of the above two
statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false
but R is true
99. According to
Taylor, Mental Revolution is
(a)
substitution of war by peace and cooperation instead of strife
(b)
co-operation instead of strife and efficiency device
(c) efficiency
device and piece-rate system
(d) substitution of war by peace and
piece-rate system
100. Which one of
the following statements is incorrect respect of Taylor?
(a) His view of man was too mechanistic
(b) He
upheld the carrot and stick approach
(c) He was preoccupied with
efficiency
(d) He stood for creative relationship with work
101. Which of the
following are categories of persons', categorized in an organisation by Max
Weber?
Those who
1.are accustomed to obey commands.
2. are personally interested in continuing domination.
3. evince
interest in promoting change.
4. keep them in readiness to perform
changing functions.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and
2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and
4 (d) 1 and 4
102. Give the below
are two statements one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason
(R)
Assertion (A) : The developing countries bureaucracy plays a
dominant role.
Reason (R) : Weber brought out the merits of
bureaucratic system. .
In the context of the above two statements,
which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false
but R is true
103. The 'gangplank'
idea is found in the works of
(c)
Fayol (b) Follett
(c)
Barnard (d) Simon
104. The classical
theory of organisation is known as mechanistic theory because
(a) it does not explain the dynamics of organizational
behavior
(b) it establishes a formally declared pattern of
relationship
(c) it underestimates human factors and oversimplifies
motivation
(d) it treats organization as a closed system
105. Mayo made out a case for skills that
are:
(a) human and
interactive
(b) social and adaptive
(c) scientific and
normative
(d) technical and empirical
106. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A)
and the other labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A) : Mayo's
recommendations are immensely useful not only in the industrial sector but also
in 'the administrative system of a state.
Reason (R) : Human
beings in all kinds of Organization have some common social needs, feelings,
attitudes and desires.
In the context of the above two statements,
which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false
but R is true
107. Match List I with List II and select the correct
answer:
List I
(Approaches) List II (Defining
Features)
A.
Behavioral
1. Descriptive
B.
Systems
2. Evolutionary
A.
Historic
3. Interact ional
D.
Institutional
4. Scientific
A
B C D
A B C D
(a) 4 3
2 1 (b) 4
3 1 2
(c) 3
4 2 1 (c)
3 4 1 2
108. Match List I
with List II and select the correct answer:
List
I
List II
A. Distinction
between
1. Herbert A. Simon
obedience and
acceptance
B. Distinction between ‘economic 2. Chester Barnard
man’ and ‘administrative man’
C. Distinction
between
3. F. W. Taylor
‘charismatic’ ‘traditional’
and ‘legal rational authority’
D. Distinction
between
4. Max Weber
‘principles’ and ‘mechanics
of management’
5. H. Fayol
A B C
D A
B C D
(a) 2
1 4 3 (b)
1 3 5 2
(c) 2 3
4 1 (d) 1
3 2 5
109. Match List I
with List II and select the correct answer:
List I
List
II
A. Top-down
Theory
1. A H. Maslow
B. Bottom-up
Theory
2. F. W. Taylor
C. Self actualization
Theory 3. Norbert Wiener
D. Cybernetic
Theory
4. C. Barnard
A
B C
D
A B C D
(a) 4
2 3 1
(b) 2 4
1 3
(c) 4
2 1 3
(d) 2 4
3 1
110. Given below are
two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R)
:
Assertion (A) : In systems approach, the process and the course of
action is adapted to suit the requirements of the situation.
Reason (R)
: The organization has a social purpose' and is a part of the prevailing
environment. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the
following is correct?
(a) Both A and R
are true and R is the correct explanation of A .
(b) Both A and R are true
but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
111. Which of the
following are implied by Hierarchy?
1. Higher levels cannot take
disciplinary action against subordinates.
2. Higher levels have the freedom
to carry out the operations.
3. Upper levels set the goals to be pursued.
4. Lower levels take action to pursue the goals.
Select the correct
answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1
and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and
4 (d) 1 and 4
112. The scalar
principle refers to as
(a)
classification of civil servants according to their scales of pay
(b)
grading of duties according to the degree of authority
(c) organizing the
relations between members of 'line' and 'staff agencies
(d) governing the
allocation of persons, to the different levels in the hierarchy
113. Given below are
two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other 1abeled as Reason (R)
:
Assertion (A) : Unity of command means that the entire organization
has only one boss and one plan of action to promote efficiency and
effectiveness.
Reason (R) : The concept of unity of command is
proposed as substitute to the "Functional foremanship"
In the context of the
above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is
true
114. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A)
and the other labeled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : Span of control
depends on personal qualities, skills and experience.
Reason (R) :
Empirical studies have found that the span of control will be small if
organizational units are located at different places.
In the context of the
above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true. but R- is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is
true
115. Which one of the following is NOT a proposition in Theory X
?
(a) Man wishes to avoid responsibility
(b) Man has an inherent liking for work
(c) Man must be coerced for
working
(d) Man must be threatened with punishment
116. Who among the following do NOT up hold the acceptance theory
of authority ?
1. Taylor
2. Fayol
3. Barnard
4. Simon
Select
the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a} l and 2 (b) 2 and
3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) l and 4
117. Given below are .two statements, one labeled as Assertion
(A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) :
Coordination can be achieved by establishing direct Personal contact with the
people concerned
Reason (R) : Inter-personal communication
facilitates quick resolution of differences.
In the context of the above two
statements, which one of. the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true .and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is
true
118. Given below are two
statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Delegation is not a process of abdication.
Reason (R) : The delegate does not shirk his responsibility.
In
the context of the above two statements, Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A .
(b) Both A and R are true .but R is not the
correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but
R is true
119. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion
(A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Supervision
involves inspecting the activities of the subordinates so that they work towards
the goal of the organization.
Reason (R) : Individuals have a
tendency to work for the achievement of their own ends.
In the context of
the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is
true
120. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A)
and the other labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A) : Division between
one and Staff cannot be watertight.
Reason (R) : Authority is more a
matter of influence rather than of command.
In the context of the above two
statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is
true
Acknowledgement: Thank you so much Mr. Raghu (www.clik.to/ias).
Source: http://www.kadiravan.com/
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