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Public Administration - 1998 (Prelims)
Time Allowed : Two
Hours
Maximum Marks : 300
1.
The Railway budget was separated from the
Central Budget in the year
(a)
1920 (b)
1921 (c)
1922 (d) 1923
2. The Speaker of
the Lok Sabha has been empowered to exercise 'Guillotine'
(a) After demands are discussed
(b) after
demands are discussed and passed
(c) When the time allotted for budget
discussions is exhausted
(d) when the demands are passed with a cut
3. Which of the
following are ensured by the Budget?
1. Financial and legal
accountability of the Executive to the Legislature.
2. Accountability
of each subordinate authority is Executive to the one immediately above in the
hierarchy
3. Accountability of the legislature to the
Judiciary
4. Accountability of government departments to Finance
Ministry.
(a) l and
2 (b) 1,3 and 4
(c) 2,3 and
4 (d) 1,2 and 4
4. Which of the
following Committees consist of representatives of both the Houses namely Lok
Sabha and Rajya Sabha?
1. Estimate Committee
2. Committee on
Subordinate Legislation
3. Public Accounts Committee
4.
Committee on Public Undertakings
(a) l and
4 (b) 1, 2 and
3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
5. Which of the
following tools of control may be adopted for raising a discussion in House on a
matter of urgent public importance
(a) Censure motion
(b) Adjournment
motion
(c) Calling attention
(d) Cut motion
6. Consider the
following statements:
The proposal to merge the Air-India and Indian
Airlines into a single holding company is designed to
1. achieve
flexibility and co-ordination
2. increasing competitiveness
3.
avoid financial loss
4. get rid of surplus staff .
Of these
statements
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are
correct (b) 1 and 4 are
correct
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are
correct (d) 2,
3 and 4 are correct
7. A Judicial remedy whereby the State inquires into the
legality of the claim which a party asserts to an office or franchise, is better
known as
(a)
Mandamus (b) Certiorari
(c)
Prohibition (d) Quo Warrant
8. Which one of the
following statements about the Planning Commission in India is
true?
(a) It is a constitutional
body
(b) it is a statutory body
(c) It has been created by an
executive order
(d) It is quasi-judicial in character
9. Which one of the
following is NOT a function of the Plan- Ding Commission of
India?
(a) Formulation of a
plan
(b) Execution of development plans
(c) Appraisal of plan
progress
(d) Making recommendations on policy and administration
10. Out of the
various forms of public enterprises in India, which one of the following is
constituted through a separate statutory enactment?
(a)
Departmental
(b) Corporation
(c)
Company
(d) Control Board
11. Which one of the
following commissions recommended the setting up of a Public Service Commission
for recruitment of personnel to the Public Services in India
?
(a) Simon Commission
(b)
Lee Commission
(c) Atlee Commission
(d) Radcliff Commission
12. Consider the
following statements:
The Finance Commission makes recommendations to
the President in respect of
1. the distribution of net proceeds of
taxes to be shares between the Union and the States
2. assessment of
natural, capital and human resources
3. the principles governing grants
in aid to the States
4. any other matter concerning financial relations
between the Union and the States
Of these statements :
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are
correct (b) 2 and 4 are correct
(c) 1, 3
and 4 are correct (d) 1, 2
and 3 are correct
13. Who allocates
the business to various Ministries and Departments in the Government
of
India ?
(a) President's
Secretariat
(b) Prime Minister's Secretariat
(c) Parliament's
Secretariat
(d) Cabinet Secretariat
14. Which of the
following are some of the functions of the Cabinet Secretariat ?
1. To
provide secretarial assistance to the Cabinet
2. To provide secretarial
services to various standing committees and 'adhoc committees of the
Cabinet
3. To assist ministers in the discharge of their parliamentary
responsibilities
(a) 1, 2 and
3 (b) 1 and 2
(c)
1 and
3
(d) 2 and 3
15. Consider the following statements:
The working of
India's ONGC reveals that Government (Ministry of Petroleum) has bestowed on
it
1. financial freedom
2. operational freedom
3. freedom to take decision at the field manager level 4. freedom from
administered prices
5. freedom for personnel management .
Of
these statements
(a) 1 alone is
correct
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 are
correct (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are
correct
16. The economic
liberalization policy of the Government of India has provided for which of the
following measures for the reforms of the public enterprises ?
1. Exit
Policy
2. Privatization of PSUs
3. Providing autonomy
to top profit-making units
4. Globalization of PSUs
Select the
correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and
2
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
17. The 'Navratna'
policy of the Government of India provides the PSUs with which of the
following?
1. flexibility
2. Financial autonomy
3.
Administrative autonomy
4. Freedom for joint venture with equity
within 5% of their net worth
(a) 1
and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
18. The
Dis-investment Commission has proposed a stock option scheme for the employees
of PSUs. which of the following are its main features?
1. No physical
transfer of shares from the PSUs to their employee
2. Management of the
shares by a trust composed of experts
3. Allotment of shares to new
employees .
4. Sale of shares in the stock market by the shareholding
employees
(a) l and
4 (b) 1, 2 and
3
(b) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
19. Consider the
following steps:
1. Closure of sick units
2. Nationalization
of joint public private units
3. Introduction of MOU system
4.
Golden hand-shake
5. National Renewal Fund The reform steps taken by
the Government of India prior to its New Economic Policy regarding the public
sector undertakings include
(a) l
and
2
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 3, 4 and 5
20. There shall be a
Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as the head to aid and advice the
President who shall in the exercise of his functions act in accordance with his
advice. This provision in the Constitution has been laid down by which one of
the following Constitutional Amendment Act?
(a) 41st
(b) 42nd (c)
43rd (d) 72nd
21. Match List I
(features of the Indian Constitution with List II (their sources) and select the
correct
answer:
List
I
List II
A. Fundamental
Rights
1.Germany
B. Directive
Principles
2. U. S. A. of State Policy
C. Emergency
Powers
3. U. K.
D. Rule of
Law
4. Ireland
A
B C
D
A B C
D
(a) 4
2 3
1 (b) 2
4 1 3
(c)
4 2 1
3 (d) 2
4 3 1
22. Which of the
following statements are true?
1.In USA, there is a legal ban strikes
by public employees
2. In India, strike by public employees is an
offence under the Essential Services Act
3.In UK, the National Whitely
Council's resolution bans strikes by public employees
4. In UK,
executive rules regard strikes as offences by public
employees
(a) 1 and
2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and
4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
23. Consider the
following statements:
The Comparative Public Administration method of
Rigs emphasizes a shift from
1. normative to
empirical
2. ideograph to homothetic
4.
bureaucratic to non-bureaucratic
5. historical to
philosophical
Of these statements the correct statements
are
(a) 1, 2 and
3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3,4 and
5
(d) 2, 4 and 5
24. Under their
service rules, the British Civil Servants are required to be
(a) neutral in politics
(b) can be partisan
(c)
can be partly neutral and partly partisan
(d) can pursue active party
politics
25. The credit for
coining and applying the concept of indicative planning goes to
(a) erstwhile USSR
(b) Britain
(c) USA
(d)
France
26. In which of the
following modern states do the civil servants enjoy the legal right to take time
off from their administrative career duties and responsibilities in order to
contest elections and join politics for a term?
(a) USA
(b) Britain
(c) Russia
(d) France
27. Consider the
following statements:
The members of the erstwhile Soviet bureaucracy
1.
had the right to participate in active party politics
2. could not take part
in party politics
3. could criticize the policies of the
government
4. had the right to pursue private economic
activities
Of these statements :
(a)
1 alone is correct (b) 1 and 4
are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are
correct (d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
28. The United
States established the merit system of recruitment to the civil services through
(a) the Pendleton Act
(b) the Budget and Accounting Act
(c) the Civil Service Reform Act
(d) an executive order of the President
29. Consider the
following statements :
The Civi1 Service Reform Act,1978 of United States
introduced
1. performance-budgeting system
2. performance bonus for
members of the senior executive service
3.. merit pays provision for middle
managerial personnel
4. performance appraisal system .
5. office of
Personnel Management
Of these statements :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 2, 3 and 5 are
correct (d) 1, 4 and 5 are correct
30. Which of the
following models were designed by Fred Riggs for the study of the administrative
of developing nations?
1. Bureaucratic
2. Decision-making
3. Non-government
4. Prismatic/sala / bazaar canteen
5.
Agreria-Industrial
(a) 1, 2 and
3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 4 and
5
(d) 1, 4 and 5
31. Who among the
following remained the Chairman of the Comparative Administration Group for ten
years in the United States?
(a)
Woodrow Wilson
(b) Herbert Simon
(c) Dwight
Waldo
(d) Fred Riggs
32. Consider the
following statements During the regime of Margaret Thatcher, Britain worked
towards
1. strengthening the civil service
2. weakening the
administrative state
3. strengthening the market economy
4.
weakening the welfare state
5. privatizing the public sector
units
Of these statements :
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are
correct (b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 are
correct
(c) 1, 3 and 5 are
correct (d) 2, 3,
4and 5 are correct
33. When there is no
majority in the State Legislature Assembly the principal consideration governing
the choice of the Chief Minister by the Governor of the State is
the
(a) ability of the person who
is most likely to command a stable , majority in the House
(b) largest
political party in the Legislative Assembly
(c) the combination of
several parties as a unit
(d) the loyalty and support of the party
members to their respective party programs and policies
34. Which one of the following is a form of urban governance
found in India?
(a) Council
Mayor
(b) Commissioner
(c)
Mayor-in-Council
(d) Council-Manager
35. Consider the following:
1. Rural-Urban Relationship
Committee
2. The Committee of Ministers on Augmentation of Financial
Resources of urban local bodies
3. Local finance Enquirer
Committee
4. National Commission on Urbanization
The correct chronological sequence is .
(a) 2, 3, 4,
1
(b) 3, 2, 1, 4
(c) 2, 3, 1,
4
(d) 3, 2, 4, 1
36."Local self
government is and must be the basis of any true system of democracy. We have got
rather into the habit of thinking democracy at the top and not so much below.
Democracy at the top may not be a success unless we build its foundation from
below" This statement is attributed to (a)
Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jaiprakash Narain
(c) Jawaharlal
Nehru
(d) Vinoba Bhave
37. Nagar Palika
Bill was first introduced in Parliament during the Prime Ministership
of
(a) V. P.
Singh
(b) Chandrashekhar
(c) Rajiv
Gandhi (d)
Narasimha Rao
38. The need for
constitutional sanction to village panchayats was first felt
by
(a) Balwant ray Mehta
Committee (b) Asoka Mehta
Committee
(c) V.K.R. . Rao
Committee
(d) L .M. Singhvi Committee
39. State Finance
Commission is appointed by a State Government every five year to determine
(a) financial resources of the state for placing
state's requirement before the Union Government
(b) development
requirements of the state for formulating state Five year plans
(c)
budgetary requirements of various departments of the state
government
(d) pattern of distribution of state's tax revenue between
the state government and local bodies (both rural and urban) and the pattern of
grants-in-aid to local bodies
Directions:- The
following 21 items consist of two statements, one labeled as' Assertion A' and
the other labeled as 'Reason R'. You are to \examine these two statements
carefully and decide if the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true
and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select
the your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer
sheet accordingly.
Codes :
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false
but R is true
40. Assertion (A)
: The relation between a generalist and a
specialist is that of a senior and subordinate.
Reason (R) : A
specialist is required to assist the generalist in the formulation and
implementation of Public Policy.
41. Assertion (A)
: Both Public and Private Administration operate in the same social
environment.
Reason (R) : Pressure group activity is more
intense in Public than Private Administration.
42. Assertion (A) :
Public Administration is an action oriented
applied social science because it is engaged in the task of implementing Public
Policies.
Reason (R) : The need to adopt management science and
techniques for improving the skills of Public Administrators can hardly be
overemphasized.
43. Assertion (A)
: Public Administration is characterized by
an absence of profit motive.
Reason (R) : The basic aim of
governmental activities is not to maximize profit, but to promote societal
welfare.
44. Assertion (A)
: Development approach to the study of
Public Administration emerged due to increased realisation of their relevance of
the western concepts in understudying the problems of third world
nations.
Reason (R) : Development approach aims at establishing
propositions about administrative behavior, which transcend national boundaries.
45. Assertion (A)
: Classical theory views organisation as a
formal structure of authority based on universal principles.
Reason
(R) : Classical theory views the human beings who run an organisation as
mere cogs in the machine.
46. Assertion (A)
: The responsibility and authority of each
supervisor should be clearly defined in writing.
Reason (R) :
Responsibility should always be coupled with corresponding authority .
47. Assertion (A)
: In every modem state the every increasing
administration has focused attention on the urgent need for unity in
administration.
Reason (R) : Integration and co-ordination have,
therefore, become Sine-qua-non of a good administrative system today.
48. Assertion (A) : In an
organisation such an environment should be created that everyone puts in his
best in the work and the result is maximum output,
Reason ( R) :
Supervision is to achieve co-ordination among the various units of an
organisation.
49. Assertion (A) : It is not always easy to separate means from ends while making decisions. . Reason (R) : An apparent and may be only a means for some future end.
50. Assertion (A)
: Communication involves something more
than will transmission of message or transmission and physical receipt of
the same.
Reason (R) : Communication is the process through which two
or more persons exchange ideas.
51. Assertion (A) :
Leadership is a continuous process of
influencing behavior .
Reason (R) : Leaders must show a genuine human
concern for subordinates.
52. Assertion (A) :
"Grapevine" is a means of communication. It
stresses the operation of social forces at work place.
Reason (R) :
Informal communication helps to minimize conflict in the organization.
53. Assertion (A)
: Theory 'Y' suggests a new approach and
emphasizes the co-operative effort of management and employees.
Reason
(R) : Theory 'Y' emphasizes that most people have little capacity for
creativity.
54. Assertion (A)
: Lack of promotion system has a marked
retroactive effect on all processes of personnel management.
Reason (R)
: Promotionsystemisvita1forattracting and retaining talented persons in
public services.
55. Assertion (A)
: Though the Central Service officers are
not All India service officers the nature of their task and postings make them
truly Ali-Indian character.
Reason (R) : Unlike officers of All-India
services ( Central service officers do not work under State governments while
working in the States.
56. Assertion (A)
: In India the Government provides for
different kinds of mechanism for the settlement of disputes with its
employees.
Reason (R) : Harmonious relations between employees and the
employer lead to optimum output.
57. Assertion (A}
: The estimates received from various ,
ministries are finally scrutinized by the Union Finance Ministry .
Reason
(R) : The Union Finance Ministry consists of Departments of Revenue,
Expenditure, Economic Affairs, Banking Finance
58. Assertion (A)
: President of India is the Chief Executive
of Government of India.
Reason (R) : President of India is elected by
the elected members of Parliament and elected members of state legislative
assemblies.
59. Assertion (A)
: Reservation of seats for women in
Panchayati Raj bodies will pave the way for their political empowerment.
Reason (R) : Empowerment of women is essential for the achievement of
democracy and development.
60. Assertion (A)
: The Chief Minister of a State is the head
of the Council of Ministers of that State.
Reason (R) : The Chief
Minister is responsible to State Legislative Assembly and enjoys the support of
a majority in the House.
61. Which of the
following pairs are correctly matched ?
1. New Public
Administration……………….. Frank Marini
2. Philosophy of
Administration……………… L. Meriam
3. Politics Administration
Dichotomy…………….. W. Wilson
4. Conflict resolution through
integration………… M. P. Follett
(a)
1, 2 and
3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and
4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
62. Which one of the following is NOT the function of Public
Administration ?
(a) To establish
public health programs
(b) To resolve problems of foreign
policy
(c) To settle disputes between private companies and labor
unions
(d) To obtain co-operation from the public in implementing
public policies
63. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
:
List I
(Authors)
List II (Books)
A. Gulick &
Urwick
1. Public Administration
:
A Comparative Perspective
B. Dwight
Waldo
2. Principles of Public Administration
C. Ferrel
Heady
3. Papers on the Science of Public Administration
D.
Willoughby
4. The Administrative State
A B C
D
A B C
D
(a)
4 3 1
2 (b)
3 4
2 1
(c) 3
4 1
2 (d)
4 3
2 1
64.
Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer
:
List
I
List II
A.
Fayol
1. Public Administration is
concerned
with the what and how of government
B.
Gulick
2. Public Administration mainly has to do with the activities of
the
executive branch
C. F. M.
Marx
3. Administration has to do with planning ,
organization,
command,
coordination and control
D.
Dimock
4. Public Administration embraces every area and every
activity
under the jurisdiction of public policy
A B C
D
A B C
D
(a)
3 2
1 4 (b)
2 3 1
4
(c) 3
2 4
1 (d) 2
3 4 1
65. The influence of
socio psychological factors on the worker's output was first proved
by:
(a) Mary P.
Follett (b)
Frederick W. Taylor
(c) Elton
Mayo
(d) Rensis Likert
66.
According to Paul Appleby which of the
following aspects differentiate government administration from its private
counterpart ?
1. Breadth of scope and impact
2. Public
accountability
3. Political character
4.
Bureaucracy
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) l, 2 and
3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and
4 (d)
1,3 and 4
67. Which of the
following statements are correct in respect of cameralists ?
1. They
did much for the training of administrators
2. They were a group of
French scholars
3. The foremost among them was G. Zincke
4.
They combined professional posts with public service
(a) 1, 2, 3 and
4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and
4
(d) 1 and 3
68. Which of the
following is NOT one of the three problem are as identified by Dahl in his "The
Science of Public Administration" ?
(a)
Values
(b) Personality differences
(c) Policy
making (d) Socio-culture
variations
69. Consider the
following statements :
New Public Administration is
1.
anti-positivist
2. supportive of politics -administration
dichotomy
3. anti-bureaucratic
4. client-oriented
Of
these statements
(a) 1, 3 and 4 are
correct (b) 1, 2 and
4 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are
correct
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
70. Which one of the
following is the correct sequence in which the following approaches to the Study
of Public Administration as a discipline evolves ?
(a) Classical Approach. Human Relations Approach, Policy
Approach. Behavioral Approach
(b) Classical Approach, Policy Approach.
Behavioral Approach. Human Relations Approach
(c) Classical Approach.
Behavioral Approach, Human Relations Approach, Policy Approach
(d)
Classical Approach, Human Relations Approach. Behavioral Approach, Policy
Approach
71. According to
classical school, 'the Science of Public Administration' was based
on
(a) absence of ethical or
normative values
(b) presence of codified principles and
techniques
(c) presence of scientific principles and methods of
universal application
(d) presence of empirical exact
knowledge
72. All persons in
authority , who control the work of others, are supervisors. Which one of the
following methods of supervision was NOT suggested by Millet
?
(a) Prior approval of individual
projects
(b) Inspection of result as it leads to waste of time and
energy
(c) A reporting system on work progress
(d) Budgetary
limitations upon the magnitude of operations
73. According to
Henri Fayol the top management/higher civil service is responsible for the
performance of five important functions, namely
(a) planning, organising, command, co-ordination and
control
(b) policy making, planning, management, communication and
reporting
(c) organisation, budgeting, public relation, administrative
reform and delegation
(d) decision -making, delegation, planning,
co-ordination and control
74. In his search
for scientific approach to management, Fredrick W. Taylor said: "What
constitutes a fari day's work will be a question for scientific investigation,
instead of a subject to be bargained and haggled over".
In this
statement, Taylor used the term "a fair day's work" to ,
(a) Limit the working hours of labour
(b) Fix
wages on piece-rate basis
(c) Save labour from exploitation by
management
(d) Eliminate work at night
75. The Hawthorne
experiments of Mayo revealed the importance of
(a) standardization of work procedure
(b)
informal social forces in the organisation
(c) payment on group
basis
(d) management response to workers' demands
76. Which of the
following pairs of authors and. their characterization of bureaucracy are
correctly matched ?
1. M. Weber...................... Most rational form of
organisation
2. K. Marx......................... Bearer of private
interests
3. R. Merton...................... causing 'goal
displacement'
4. M. Michels..................... Creates "trained
incapacity"
(a) 1, 2, 3 and
4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) l and
4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
77. Who, among the
following, was instrumental in the evolution of the Concept of New Public
Administration ?
(a) F.
Marini
(b) H. George Fredrickson
(c) Dwight
Waldo (d) H. A. Simon
78. Which of the
following components are present in Weber's bureaucratic model ?
1.
Hierarchical arrangement of offices
2. Division of work
3.
Written rules for carrying out assigned tasks
4. Social status
determining public employment
(a)
1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and
3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
79. Which of the
following features of bureaucracy can be identified with Marx?
1. It is
a particular closed society within the State
2. It is an integral part
of the exploitative social system
3. It is an administrative body of
appointed officials
4. What fetishism of commodities is to economics,
bureaucracy is to politics
(a) 1, 2, 3
and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and
4
(d) 1 and3
80. While conceiving
an organisation chiefly as a designing process which one of the following
writers felt that "lack of design is illogical, cruel, wasteful and inefficient'
?
(a) Luther Gulick
(b) Lyndall
Urwick
(c) Henri Fayol
(d) James Mooney
81. Chris Argyris
suggests the T group technique for improving the personal effectiveness of
employees. Which one of the following is not part of this type of sensitivity
training ?
(a) Individual employees have
to expose their behaviour and they give, receive and get feedback (b) It
provides possibilities to learn the nature of effective group functioning
(c) Subordinates feel happier under conditions of directive leadership
(d) Psychological success, self-esteem and inter-personal competence can be
increased
82. The code of
conduct was maintained for group solidarity and informal pressure was used to
set right the erring members of the group during the Hawthorne experiments. It
did not include one being a
(a)
rate-buster
(b) 'squealer'
(c)
'chiseler'
(d) 'recluse'
83. Which one of the
following approaches emphasized inter- group relationships in addition to the
formal structure ?
(a) Historical
approach
(b) Philosophical approach
(c) Legal approach
(d)
Behavioral approach
84. Which one of the
following statements about the systems approach to organization is NOT correct ?
(a) It is derived from one general
systems theory
(b) It studies the organisation as a whole in relation to its
environment
(c) It leads to certain fundamental principles of organisation
(d) It views the organization and its environment as interdependent for
inputs and resources
85. Which one of the
following methods can an administrator adopt in a crisis situation ?
(a) Acting within his jurisdiction of
authority .
(b) Adopting the gangplank after informing his immediate
superior
(c) Seeking the advice of his subordinates
(d) Obtaining orders
of the higher ups through proper channel
86. Which of the
following are correctly matched ?
1. Authority.................... It is
accepted as legitimate
2. Power....................... Carrying out one's
will despite resistance
3. Control...................... Ability to
guide
4. Discretion.................. Choosing among alternatives causes of
action
(a) 1, 2, 3 and
4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and
4
(d) l and3
87. Which of the
following factors could place limitations on .the authority of a superior ?
1. Group behaviour
2. Social relationships
3. Organisational norms
4. Bonafide instructions
(a) 1, 2, 3
and 4 (b) 1
and 2
(c) 3 and
4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
88. Which of the
following have undermined the importance of Principle of Unity of Command in
recent years ?
1. Growing size and complexity of government
2.
Increasing number and influence of civil servants
3. Manning of government
positions by experts
4. Increasing number and influence of boards,
commissions and auxiliary agencies
(a) 1
and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and
4 (d) 2 and 4
89. The statement,
"Co-ordination is the olderly arrangement of group efforts, to provide unity of
action in the pursuit of a common purpose" is attributed to
(a) Willoughby
(b) Urwick
(c) Mooney
(d)
White
90. When the
delegation goes by a climate of understanding between the superior and
subordinate, it is known as
(a) general
delegation (b)
specific delegation
(c) formal
delegation (d)
informal delegation
91. The chief reason
for delegation of authority from headquarter to field offices is
to
(a) inculcate skill in the
latter
(b) facilitate local division-making
(c) decongest the
headquarter
(d) control the field office
92. Which one of the
following is a feature of the jobcentre supervisor, according to Likert
?
(a) He experts little pressure on the
subordinates
(b) He exercises general supervision
(c) He
exerts heavy pressure to get the work done
(d) He motivates
subordinates to achieve high performance goals
93. Which one of the
following is NOT true of line activity ?
(a) It has operational abilities
(b) It stands
for thought and facilitation
(c) It decides the organisational
goals
(d) It has authority
94. According to
Simon and March, which of the following are i the limitations of the
classical theory ?
1. Improper motivational assumptions
2.
Little attention given to the role of cognition in task identification and
classification
3. Little importance given to programme
evaluation
4. Lack of sophistication in the
theory
(a) 1, 2, 3 and
4 (b) 1 and
4
(c) 2, 3 and
4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
95. Power to take
decisions, communicating them to the subordinates for implementation and thus
influencing behaviour pattern in an organisation is
(a) Responsibility
(b) Hierarchy
(c)
Authority
(d) Unity of command
96. Mc Gregor's
theory 'Y' emphasizes which of the following elements for an effective and
successful organisation ?
1. Acceptance by management of "hierarchy of
human needs" concept and making room for its fulfillment in the work
organisation.
2. Enlargement of job
3. Decentralization of
authority
4. Practice of MBO
(a) 1 alone (b) 1 and
2
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
97. Which of the
following are the functions of the leader under human relations theory ?
1.
To facilitate co-operative goal attainment among followers
2. To
provide opportunities for their personal growth and development
3. To
set up and enforce performance criteria to meet organisational goals
4.
To fulfill needs of the organisation
(a) 1 and
3 (b) 1
and 2
(c) 2 and
4 (d) 3
and 4
98. Which of the
following are the phases in the decision making processes as conceptualized by
Herbert A. Simon ?
1.
Intelligence 2.
Design
3.
Choice
4. Implementation
(a) l and
4 (b) 1, 2 and
3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
99. Match List I
with List II and select the correct answer
:
List
I
List II
A. Immaturity-Maturity
Theory
1. D. Mc Gregor
B. Motivation-Hygiene
Theory
2. Chris Argyris
C. Human
Group
3. F. Herzberg
D. Theory
X
4. George C. Homans
A
B C
D
A B C
D
(a) 3
2 1
4 (b) 1
3 4 1
(c)
2 3 1
4 (d) 3
2 4 1
100. Which of the
following are the assumptions in Theory 'X'?
1. Human beings have an
inherent dislike of work
2. Because of human dislike of work, people
must be punished
3. Human beings are committed to
objectives
4. Human beings avoid responsibility
(a) 1, 2 and
4 (b) 1, 2 and
3
(c) 3 and
4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
101. Which one of
the following is NOT a feature of Barnard's theory of formal organization ?
(a) Common purpose
(b) Willingness
to co-operate
(c) General incentives
(d) Communication
102. Valence
Expectancy theory, an alternative theory of motivation, was proposed
by
(a) Chris Argyris
(b) Victor H.
Vroom
(c) A. H. Maslow
(d) Mc Gregor
103. Consider the
following statements regarding Achievement - oriented leadership:
The leader
1. does not allow participation by subordinates
2. shows a genuine human
concern for subordinates
3. sets challenging goals for subordinates
4.
asks for and uses suggestions from subordinates
Of these statements
(a) 1 and 2 are
correct
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 3 and 4 are
correct
(d) 2 and 4 are correct
104. Match List I
with List II and select the correct answer:
List
I
List II
A. Masterman
Committee 1.
Recruitment
B. Assheton
Committee
2. Political Activities
C. Satish Chandra
Committee 3. Training
D. Fulton
Committee
4. Professionalism
A
B C
D A
B C D
(a) 2 3
4 1 (b) 2
3 1 4
(c) 3
2 1 4 (d)
3 2 4 1
105. In India, rules
governing conditions of service should NOT be made in violation of
(a) Articles 14, 15, 16 and 311 of the
Constitution
(b) Articles 14, 310 and 311 of the Constitution
(c)
Articles 15, 16, 310 and 311 of the Constitution
(d) Articles 14, 15, 16,
310 and 311 of the Constitution
106. Which one of
the following is NOT an objective of Whitley Councils ?
(a) Ventilation of grievances through discussions
(b)
Providing a forum for securing co-operation between State and civil servants
(c) Proposing legislation on issues relating to civil servants vis- a-vis
their employment
(d) Hearing petitions filed by individual civil servants
107. A new All India service can be created by
(a) an amendment of the Constitution
(b) an executive
order
(c) a resolution under Article 312 of the Constitution
(d) a
statute
108. The mid -career
Advance Professional Programme is Public Administration popularly known as APPP
A for civil servants is organised by.
(a) HCM Rajasthan State Institute of Public
Administration, Jaipur
(b) Administrative Staff College of India, Hyderabad
(c) Indian Institute of Public Administration, New Delhi
(d) Lal Bahadur
Shastri National Academy of Administration, Mussorie
109. Which one of
the following countries does NOT have a Civil Service Commission charged with
the responsibility for recruitment to the higher civil service ?
(a) Canada
(b) U.S.A
(c) Britain
(d) France
110. The first Chairman of Administrative Reforms Commission was
(a) Shri K. Hanurilanthaiah
(b)
Gulzari Lal Nanda
(c) Morarji Desai
(d) V. T. Krishnamachari
111. The political
rights available to a civil servant in India do NOT prohibit him/her from
(a) expressing a political view
(b)
contributing financially to a political party
(c) subscribing to a political
movement
(d) Voting at national and state elections
112. Consider the
following Reports :
1. Paul H. Appleby Report I.
2. A. D. Gorwale Report
3. Santhanam Committee's Report
4. Administrative Reforms Commission's
Report
The correct chronological sequence of these reports
(a) 2, 1, 4,
3 (b) 2,
1, 3, 4
(c) 1, 2, 3,
4 (d) 1,
2, 4, 3
113. The Fifth Pay
Commission of the Central Government had recommended
(a) retention of the existing system of classification of
services/posts
(b) modification of the classification into Class I, class
II, Class III and Class IV
(c) giving the existing classification into Group
A, B, C, D "a decent burial " as it served no practical purpose
(d)
introduction of the American system of position classification
114. Consider the
following statements :
A budget presented in terms of functions,
programmes and activities of the government is known
as
1. line items
budgeting
2. programme budgeting 3.
performance budgeting
Of these
statements
(a) 1 alone is
correct (b) 1
and 2 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are
correct (d) 1, 2 and 3 are
correct
115. Consider the
following statements :
In India, the Comptroller and Auditor General has to
1. audit government expenditure
2. make financial policy
3. sanction
grants to various departments
4. see that public expenditure are in
conformity with the government rules
Of these statements
(a) 2, 3 and 4 are
correct (b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are
correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct
116. Which of the
following is NOT true of Audit in India ?
(a) It is a Constitutional obligation
(b) It looks
into the question of merits of expenditure
(c) It investigates into the
impropriety, wastefulness or extravagance of expenditure
(d) It is governed
by an executive order
117. When an advance
grant is made by Parliament, pending the regular passage of the budget it is
called
(a) vote on credit
(b) token
grant .
(c) vote on account
(d) supplementary grant
118. What is the
correct sequence of the stages of the enactment of the budget in India ?
(a) Passing of finance bill,
appropriation bill, voting of demand for grants, general discussion
(b)
General discussion, appropriation bill, voting of demands of grants, finance
bill
(c) General discussion, voting of demands for grants, appropriation
bill, finance bill
(d) Finance bill, voting of demands for grants, general
discussion, appropriation bill
119. Consider the
following statements :
The Finance Ministry is given tremendous control over
the estimates of other Ministries because
1. usually a Cabinet Minister is
in charge of it
2. it is not a spending Ministry
3. it is responsible
for the conduct of all the financial transactions of the Government as a whole
4. no other ministry can spend without its sanction
Of these statements
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are
correct (b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 1, 3
and 4arecorrect (d) 1, 2 and
4arecorrect
120. 'Performance
Budgeting' was introduced in India, on the recommendations of
(a) Gorwala Report
(b) Sanathanam Committee
(c)
Administrative Reforms Commission
(d) Paul H. Appleby Report
Acknowledgement: Thank you so much Mr. Raghu (www.clik.to/ias).
Source: http://www.kadiravan.com/
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